These
comments are in response to
post#36 and #39 by
Muhammad Ahsan Khan in particular and
FOTH in general.
Ahsan,
I went through your post#36 and #39, where you have questioned
the logical reasoning presented in another post and have
claimed that "The writer38 has failed to refute any of the
points which lead to the statement (6), hence the statement
stands as it is".
Well, I intend to challenge it, though I agree with your
conclusion.
You wrote: We will consider "most Muslim countries" as a
single ensemble.
Why? If you believe that topic of the seminar provides you
with the 'facility' to discard democratic Muslim states then
it would be logically dishonest to use 'presence of Islam' as
'the' factor working against democracy in a sub-set of Islamic
countries.
More specifically,
If condition A holds true for set B.
AND If C is a subset of B.
AND If condition D holds true for C.
Then A CANNOT be the reason for D.
You wrote: We can find many factors among these Muslim
countries which may explain the absence of democracy in some
of them but not for all of them.
The foremost single factor is "Islam".
This is a big umbrella statement. The onus is on the claimant
to show us that he has considered a reasonable sample of other
possible factors and none amongst those were present in all of
the 'most Muslim countries'. To give you a small list, what
you are suggesting is that you have done research on, say,
demographic patterns, cultural heritage, GDP, GNP,
unemployment rates, per capita income, access to free
information, effects of globalization, education level, health
facilities, foreign influence, internal stresses, territorial
disputes, ethnic tensions etc. in this whole
set of countries and have not found a 'single' factor common
to all these countries. If yes, please tell us, and I'll be
happy to either agree with you or provide you with data to the
contrary.
Even if I agree that Islam is the 'only' common factor in all
these
countries, you have not answered the 'how' question. In a
subsequent post you have mentioned:
'The rational process, based on solid arguments of obtaining
the above statement has been laid down in the post #36.....'
Where are the solid arguments? You have not written a single
word about 'how' presence/interference of Islam has resulted
in a democratic failure.
The only thing I see is a simple statement of a presumed fact.
Lets change it a little and unearth another mystery by the
same technique (originals in square brackets). Suppose the
topic of the seminar was:
Why has democracy not taken root in most [Muslim] South
American countries?
And following the rational process, based on solid arguments I
reached the following conclusion:
We will consider "most [Muslim] South American countries" as a
single ensemble. We can find many factors among these [Muslim]
South American countries which may explain the absence of
democracy in some of them but not for all of them. The
foremost single factor is ["Islam"] geography. They are all in
South America. The answer to the above question is
straightforward:
"The reason that democracy has not taken root in most [Muslim]
South American countries is [Islam] because they are too far
south. Well, if they can move a little to the north things may
get better for them."
How does that go for rational process, based on solid
arguments!
Even if I were to accept this new form of solid arguments,
your logic is self contradictory even to an uninitiated eye
like myself:
You considered Islam to be 'the' factor for the lack of
democracy in 'most Islamic countries'.
I presume you do not consider 'Islam' to be the necessary
condition for the lack of democracy. We have many countries
without democracy and Islam.
Right?
This implies that, perhaps, you consider Islam to be a
sufficient condition for the lack of democracy. But you go on
and contradict this implicitly by agreeing that you are
talking about 'most' and not 'all' of the Muslim countries.
So if Islam is neither necessary nor sufficient to bring the
downfall of democracy in a society then why all this Islam
bashing. It would have been more appropriate for you to have
stated Islam as one-of-the-many factors.
Ironically, I do agree with your conclusion. State and
religion should not mix together.
On a side note: I am surprised where are all those rational
logicians who would readily tear apart any weakness in logic
posted by someone claiming to be a believer on this forum. And
believe me, this forum has quite a few of such hawks. I wonder
if we are all happy in our own comfort zones and would target
only those who try to present a case against our predefined
notions
of truth. Objectivity, doesn't seem to be a hallmark of this
forum.
regards,
inaam